[IT/计算机]EMC认证考试

[IT/计算机]EMC认证考试 EMC-Technology Foundations Exam : E20-090 Title : EMC technology foundations Storage management 1. A UNIX client must perform which operation to access a NAS advertised connection point? A. Export B. Map C. NFSMount D. Share Answer: C 2. What describes the iSCSI protocol? A. ATA over SCSI B. IP over SCSI C. SCSI over ATA D. SCSI over IP Answer: D 3. For load balancing purposes, how many ControlCenter Store processes can be running on a particular host? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. no limit Answer: A 4. What does a Domain ID uniquely identify? A. A fabric in a multi-fabric environment B. A Fibre Channel node on a name server C. A storage frame within a fabric D. A switch within a fabric Answer: D 5. Which CLARiiON GUI based tool is used to present LUNs to hosts? A. Fabric Manager B. Navisphere CLI C. Navisphere Manager D. Web Tools Answer: C 6. How would you use ControlCenter to make zoning changes? A. Create a Temp Zone set and merge it with the Active Zone set B. Disable the Active Zone set, edit it, and re-enable it C. Edit a Planned Zone set and activate it D. Edit the Active Zone set and save it Answer: C 7. Which type of task can be performed by VisualSRM Intelligent Actions without relying on host-based scripts? A. File system tasks such as mount, unmount B. File tasks such as delete, compress C. Mailbox tasks such as copy, move D. Table tasks such as extend, re-index Answer: B 8. What Boolean operation is used to calculate parity? C. XAND D. XOR A. AND B. OR Answer: D 9. What is a fundamental component of an iSCSI implementation? A. Connectrix switch B. Host with Fibre Channel HBAs C. IP network infrastructure D. Storage array with Fibre Channel ports Answer: C 10. Which view can always be accessed from the ControlCenter Tool Bar, regardless of the task being performed? A. Administration B. Data Protection C. Relationship D. Storage Allocation Answer: C 11. Which statement about Celerra TimeFinder/FS Far Copy is correct? A. Provides a pointer based view of the file system B. Shares the same volume as the Production File System C. Source and Target are asynchronously replicated D. Source and Target are synchronously replicated Answer: C 12. Which IT issue does VisualSRM help resolve? A. Manual and error-prone storage provisioning adds complexity B. Multiple products required to coordinate backup tasks on many hosts adds complexity C. Need to identify dormant files that are no longer accessed for better storage utilization D. Visualization of entire storage path from filesystem to array drive is required Answer: C 13. Which information does VisualSRM collect about Mail Servers? A. Mail server alert status B. Mailbox folder names and sizes C. Rates of transmitted and received messages D. Total number of virus infected messages Answer: B 14. Which VisualSAN software module provides switch alerting? B. Network Manager A. Configuration Manager C. Performance Manager D. SAN Manager Answer: B 15. What are the thirteen predefined Performance Manager views called? A. Critical Metrics B. Performance Views C. Symmetrix Overview D. Vital Signs Answer: D 16. What is the primary purpose of iSNS? A. To assist with discovery of iSCSI targets B. To implement TCP offload for better bandwidth C. To translate EUI-format names into iQN-format names D. To translate iQN-format names into EUI-format names Answer: A 17. What are two valid types of zoning in a SAN? A. Flexible Zoning and Invariant Zoning B. Hard Zoning and Soft Zoning C. SNIA Zoning and Vendor-Unique Zoning D. Serial and Parallel zoning Answer: B 18. How many Alert threshold levels does ControlCenter offer? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7 Answer: C 19. Which CLARiiON component is used for staging and prefetching data? A. nv ram B. PSM C. Read cache D. Write cache Answer: C 20. What software must be installed in order to discover both Symmetrix and CLARiiON arrays with the ControlCenter Storage Agent for SMI? A. Common Mapping Agent B. NaviCLI C. Solutions Enabler D. VisualSRM Answer: C Exam : E20-080 Title : Network Storage - SAN Implementation 1.Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones? A.Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host Answer: C 2.XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal? A. Array types are not compatible B. Admsnap and PowerPath C. MirrorView and SnapView D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI Answer: C 3.Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached array? A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port through a SAN B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator port in a SAN C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA port in a SAN D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a switch Answer: A 4.Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series switches? A. Web interface is not available B. EWS C. Web Tools D. Fabric Manager Answer: B 5.Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a CLARiiON array? A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power supply B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power supply C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power supply D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power supply Answer: B 6.Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature? B. Dual power supplies A. Dual consoles C. Dual ported drives D. Dual storage processors E. Dual LCCs Answer: A 7.What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array? A. LUN expansion B. LUN mirroring C. LUN groups D. LUN masking Answer: D 8.What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing is initiated in a CLARiiON system? A. 80% B. 92% C. 55% D. 75% Answer: A 9.Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features? A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network C. Synchronous data recovery D. Only sends changed data over the IP network Answer: A,D 10.Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre Channel SANs? A. SCSI B. ESCON C. SNMP D. FICON Answer: A 11.Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix? (Choose two.) A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created Answer: A,C 12.Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over campus distances for disaster recovery? A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy Answer: A 13.Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose two.) A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary C. Both Data Movers are primary D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers Answer: A,C 14.Which of the following statements is true? A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host connections C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel switches D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2) Answer: D 15.In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step? A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool D. The host data is written to Source LUN Answer: B 16.In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read request. What is the next step? A. The Channel Director checks the track table B. The Channel Director sends data to the host C. The Disk Director retrieves data D. The Disk Director sends data to the host Answer: A 17.Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access? A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts Answer: B 18.Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it? A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the failed path offline B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an alternate path C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and receives I/O timeout D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an alternate path Answer: B 19.Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.) A. Utilizes VDEVs B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity Answer: B,C 20.Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter? A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once. B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for activation/modification. C. Directly modify an active zone set. D. Directly delete an active zone set. Answer: B 21.Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes? A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations Answer: A 22.What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one Target system? A. 16 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 Answer: B 23.Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent? A. Brocade switch B. Legato Networker C. CLARiiON D. Windows 2000 disk Answer: C 24.Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays Symmetrix performance for analysis? A. Symmetrix Manager . B. StorageScope C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS D. Performance Manager Answer: D 25.Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server? (Choose two.) A. Connectrix Manager B. TimerFinder C. ESN Manager D. Navisphere Manager E. ControlCenter F. TimeFinder/Snap Answer: D,E 26.Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix system? A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager B. VisualSRM C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager D. ControlCenter StorageScope Answer: A 27.Which of the following statements is true? A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation Answer: A 28.Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.) A. EUI B. iQN C. iSNS D. DNS Answer: A,B 29.Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent? A. Brocade switch . B. Windows 2000 disk C. Legato Networker D. CLARiiON Answer: A 30.What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter? A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV) devices C. It reports key historical performance data D. It converts device types between standard and BCV Answer: C Exam : E20-597 Title : Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators 1. In NetWorker 7.4, what could be done to add a client to a group? A. Drag the client onto the group resource B. Drag the client onto the pool resource C. Select the client in the group resource D. Select the client in the pool resource Answer: A 2. Which NetWorker edition is needed to configure a data zone with a NetWorker server with 16 LTO2 devices and 10 storage nodes with 32 devices each? A. Business B. Network C. Power D. Workgroup Answer: C 3. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They will have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all sharing the four tape drives in one autochanger. How many dynamic drive sharing licenses are needed? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 12 Answer: C 4. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution? A. Built-in tape acceleration algorithm B. Extra hardware not required on the storage node C. File system shares dedicated to individual storage nodes D. Fragments file system to improve writes Answer: B 5. For which type of NetWorker backup is the client file index backed up? A. Client-initiated and server-initiated B. Client-initiated only C. Raw backups D. Server-initiated only Answer: D 6. Why are split-mirror snapshots preferred for disaster recovery? A. Always consistent B. Faster recovery compared to copy on write snapshots C. Provides a complete copy of production data D. Requires less storage space compared to copy on write snapshots Answer: C 7. What is an advantage of using EMC OnCourse? A. Automated file transfers across Celerra systems B. Creates local, point-in-time logical disk copies C. Provides a "near instant" snapshot of a filesystem on the same or different Celerras D. Automated file transfers across existing servers Answer: C 8. You want to deploy a NetWorker backup solution in an environment consisting of five Linux servers, two HP-UX, four Solaris, four Windows 2000 and three Windows 2003. One of the Solaris servers is currently idle so you decide to use it as the NetWorker server. The customer purchased a NetWorker Power Edition for UNIX. How many additional licenses are needed? A. Seven client connections and three ClientPaks B. Seven client connections and five ClientPaks C. Eight client connections and two ClientPaks D. Eight client connections and three ClientPaks Answer: D 9. A defined backup policy takes full backups every Monday and incremental backups on the remaining weekdays. In the worst case how many restores would you have to perform to recover a file that was removed by mistake on Friday morning? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: D 10. A customer buys an NS80 with two trays of 500 GB ATA disks to be used as the primary backup destination device. According to best practices, how is the second tray configured? A. One 8+1 RAID 3 group, one 4+1 RAID 3 group, and one hot spare B. Three 4+1 RAID 3 groups C. Three 4+1 RAID 5 groups D. Two 6+1 RAID 5 groups and one hot spare Answer: D 11. A customer decides to implement a two-tier backup solution, with disk as tier one and tape as tier two. A retention period needs to be defined for tier one, which would determine when the data will be moved to tier two. What determines this retention period? A. Backup window B. Data type in the environment C. Recovery point objective (RPO) D. Recovery time objective (RTO) Answer: D 12. A customer has two tape drives configured to a NetWorker storage node that is currently backing up four clients. How many nsrmmdbd processes are running on the storage node? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 Answer: A 13. Click the Exhibit button. You are backing up your data every day at midnight as shown in the exhibit. You have a failure on day 5 at 11 A.M. How many backups must be recovered? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A 14. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all using the same autochanger for backups. The autochanger has two tape drives. What is the MINIMUM number of dynamic drive sharing licenses needed? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A 15. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%. What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed? A. 30 GB B. 270 GB C. 300 GB D. 330 GB Answer: C 16. Your customer is using an advanced file type device and would like to perform save set cloning after backup. Which option is available for this configuration? A. Automatic and manual cloning of a save set, but cloning can begin only after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up B. Automatic cloning after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up and manual cloning of a save set as soon as it has finished its backup C. Manual cloning of a save set, but cloning can begin only after all the save sets in the savegroup have been backed up D. Save set cloning is not supported for advanced file type devices Answer: B 17. A telco company needs to retain log files for 1 year for legal compliance. RTO for files backed up within the last week is in minutes. Which backup solution should be recommended? A. Advanced file type device B. EMC Centera C. NDMP device D. Tape library Answer: A 18. A CLARiiON CX3-20 with 4 GB of system cache has been configured as a backup-to-disk device. What is the minimum recommended read cache size? A. 1 GB B. 2 GB C. 200 MB D. 500 MB Answer: C 19. What is a characteristic of an advanced file type device in NetWorker? A. Can only clone to another advanced file type device B. Duplicate media database records C. Requires a separate pool D. Save sets are stored in separate files in a flat directory format Answer: B 20. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up? A. mminfo B. mmls C. nsrinfo D. nsrls Answer: A Exam : EMC E20-322 Title : Technology Architect Solutions Design 1. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution. The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type? A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18 B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20 C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24 D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28 Answer: A 2. A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices between 30 and 50 km away. At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from 0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices. What is the most cost-effective EMC solution? A. 1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office. 2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers. B. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices. 2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional offices using Open Replicator. 3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy. C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices. 2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers. 3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices. 4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case. D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices. 2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices. 3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices. 4.Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links. Answer: D 3. A customer decided to consolidate their storage onto a Symmetrix. They have a mix of Windows and UNIX servers and want one copy of data for creating backups each night. They also want another copy to be made during the day. This second copy will be a standby to perform a fast recovery in the event of data corruption. The initial survey of the customer environment shows that the read/write ratio of their application is 1. 2 during the day and 5. 1 at night. The application appears to be highly sensitive to disk response times during the day. Which initial solution should be considered? A. TimeFinder/Clones for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night B. TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Clone for backups at night C. TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night D. TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Snaps for backups at night Answer: D 4. A customer has implemented a second Brocade director into their environment. They have moved several hosts and one of their two storage arrays onto the new director. When a large batch cycle was run, the customer experienced queuing on the directors when previously there was none. The customer discovered the following during their analysis of the issue. The hosts running the batch cycle used storage from both arrays. The only LUNs having problems came from the array attached to the new director. When the batch process was re-run with all LUNs made available through the original director, no problems were encountered. What would you recommend to solve the performance problem? A. Add departmental switches to the fabric, creating a core/edge design B. Change FSPF costs C. Implement additional Brocade ISLs D. Utilize Brocade ISL Trunking to optimize the ISL traffic Answer: D 5. You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. The customer would like management and reporting on a variety of hosts and storage systems. All managed objects are located in one data center. Which factors must you consider when designing an EMC ControlCenter infrastructure? A. Network firewall type, number of hosts, and total storage capacity B. Network firewall type, number of IP switches, and number of Fibre Channel switches C. Network latency, number of Exchange servers, and number of Oracle database D. Network latency, number of hosts, and number of arrays Answer: D 6. A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity. They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure and have recommended that they use QoS so that tape I/O does not use ISL bandwidth at the expense of disk I/O. Which license is needed on the MDS directors? A. Enterprise package B. Fabric Manager Server C. Storage Services Enabler package D. Tape Write Acceleration package Answer: A 7. Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive,what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 100 GB? A. Nothing; the partition will be seen as 100 GB immediately B. Run diskpart and set the partition size to 100 GB C. Run the diskpar command and set the partition size to 100 GB D. Run the format command and set the partition size to 100 GB Answer: A 8. A prospective customer has presented you with multiple applications. All applications have high write activity levels and unpredictable growth patterns. The applications are currently hosted on direct-attached storage in a RAID 1 configuration. They are concerned with making too many changes at one time in their environment. The prospect has asked you to justify your recommendation of RAID 1/0 on the CLARiiON configuration you are proposing. How do you respond to the request? A. RAID 1 has a higher write penalty than RAID 1/0 B. RAID 1 is less flexible for growing LUNs than RAID 1/0 C. RAID 1 is unavailable in current CLARiiON configurations D. RAID 1 LUNs are unable to utilize write cache Answer: B 9. After you have a fully replicated copy on the BCVs that contain an Oracle database, which two files need to be incrementally copied in order to have a consistent database? A. Archive log and redo files B. Control and archive log files C. Data and redo files D. Redo and control files Answer: D 10. A customer currently manages their DMX environment with symcli within the storage group. They are instituting a third-shift operations group with minimal symcli experience. Third shift will perform storage tasks such as device creation, device mapping, and LUN masking. Which solution fits this expanding business requirement and organizational change? A. StorageScope with StorageScope FLR B. StorageScope without StorageScope FLR C. Symmetrix Management Console D. Symmetrix Manager Answer: C 11. A customer is using SnapView snapshots for their nightly backups of a database that has several LUNs for data and for logs across both CX3-80 SPs. The SnapView process is scripted to run on the production host; however, the application cannot be quiesced without downtime. How can the downtime be eliminated while still ensuring a backup that can be restarted? A. Create the snapshots with separate simultaneous scripts B. Flush the file systems with admsnap C. Use consistent SnapView session start D. Use SnapView consistency groups Answer: C 12. A customer wants to implement one EMC Disk Library at their primary data center and one EMC Disk Library at their disaster recovery site with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) as the backup application. A small subset of the primary data needs to be transferred to a disaster recovery site where it will eventually expire without TSM involvement. What is a recommended feature to use with EMC Disk Library to transfer data to the disaster recovery site? A. Active Tape Migrator B. Compression C. Remote Copy D. Tape Capacity-on-Demand Answer: C 13. A Rainfinity administrator is interested in protecting data in the event of an outage. Currently there are two sites approximately 100 miles (160.93 kilometers) apart. Which configuration option offers the highest level of protection for the administrator? A. Cluster configuration B. Fault tolerance C. Global Name Space D. Synchronous replication Answer: D 14. You are working with a customer for whom high availability has become a priority because of recent outages due to single points of failure in their storage infrastructure. Which components are the most appropriate for the design of the SAN? A. Dual HBAs and full mesh fabric B. Dual HBAs and mirrored core-edge fabric C. Single HBAs and full mesh fabric D. Single HBAs and mirrored core-edge fabric Answer: B 15. Click the Exhibit button. A customer is evaluating a Celerra as a NAS solution for their environment. They are concerned about RTO/RPO goals on a disk level and would like to know what features the Celerra offers. Based on recovery time, what is the correct order that you should present to the customer? A. Celerra Replicator, Celerra SnapSure, Celerra SRDF/S B. Celerra Replicator, Celerra SRDF/S, Celerra SnapSure C. Celerra SnapSure, Celerra Replicator, Celerra SRDF/S D. Celerra SRDF/S, Celerra Replicator, Celerra SnapSure Answer: C 16. A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity. They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure. The customer is concerned that the additional traffic on the shared ISLs will consume bandwidth needed by the disk VSAN. Which feature should you propose to address the customer's concern? A. Fibre Channel Compression B. Fibre Channel Tape Acceleration C. Port Channeling D. Quality of Service Answer: D 17. Click the Exhibit button. A customer has a network that uses routers and various types of firewalls. The CIO at Executive User Workstation #2 wants to occasionally view the EMC ControlCenter alert status of the environment but does not otherwise want management capabilities. Which EMC ControlCenter user interface should you recommend to the user? A. EMC ControlCenter API B. Java Console C. StorageScope D. Web Console Answer: D 18. A customer is planning to migrate all their high-performance cluster servers from a non-EMC array to a DMX. There will also be a new SAN for the DMX. For migration purposes, one DMX-FA pair will be connected to the non-EMC SAN. The server will be re-cabled to the DMX SAN during the data migration and after coming online, performance must be the same. Which migration method is appropriate for this project? A. Host-based mirroring B. Open Migrator/LM C. Open Replicator Cold Pull D. Open Replicator Hot Pull Answer: C 19. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution. The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 CLARiiON configurations with 10k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type? A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18 B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20 C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24 D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28 Answer: D 20. A customer requires a low-cost solution that is good for moving data from one Symmetrix to another and does not have a need for disaster recovery. Which solution meets their requirements? A. SRDF/A B. SRDF/AR C. SRDF/CR D. SRDF/DM Answer: D Exam : E20-593 Title : Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam 1. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up? A.mminfo B.mmls C.nsrinfo D.nsrls Answer: A 2. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently. Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery? A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6 C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7 D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8 Answer: D 3. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons? A.nsrd B.nsrjobd C.nsrmmdbd D.nsrmmgd Answer: A 4. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1's data. What do you need to do? A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1 B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1 C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1 D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1 Answer: D 5. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What could be the cause? A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still browsable C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it a "suspect" status Answer: B 6. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status of the volume to continue writing to it? A.jbedit B.mminfo C.nsrck D.nsrmm Answer: D 7. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%. What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed? B.270 GB C.300 GB D.330 GB A.30 GB Answer: C 8. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the initial http request from console clients? A.dbsrv9 B.gstd C.gsttclsh D.nsrd Answer: C 9. Which NetWorker feature allows writing more than one save set at a time? A.Advanced file type device B.Multiplexing C.Open tape format D.Remote backup device Answer: B 10. A customer wants to back up two NetWorker clients at the same time every day. Which NetWorker resource is configured to include both clients? A.Group B.Policy C.Pool D.Schedule Answer: A 11. Which NetWorker process initiates negotiation with nsrd during a client-initiated backup? A.nsrexecd B.nsrindexd C.nsrlcpd D.nsrmmdbd Answer: A 12. Which NetWorker daemon is responsible for the communication between nsrjb and the user interface? A.nsrd B.nsrexecd C.nsrjobd D.nsrmmd Answer: D 13. Which NetWorker process runs on each storage node? A.nsrd B.nsrexecd C.nsrjobd D.nsrmmd Answer: D 14. What manages a NetWorker remote device? A.A host outside the NetWorker data zone B.A storage node other than the NetWorker server C.Another NetWorker server D.Remote administration tools Answer: B 15. In an EDL environment, what describes the use of Tape Cloning with the embedded storage node once the data has been backed up to virtual tape? A.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to physical tape with different barcode B.Backup application issues clone command; EDL copies save sets to physical tape with same barcode C.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to physical tape with different barcode D.Backup application issues eject command; EDL moves backup data to physical tape with same barcode Answer: A 16. A company wants to use a CX3-80 with FLARE 24 as a backup-to-disk destination device. ATA disks are being included as part of the solution. Which RAID type should be used? A.RAID 0 B.RAID 3 C.RAID 5 D.RAID 1/0 Answer: C 17. You are configuring two LUNs with 1.5 TB each in a CLARiiON CX3-80. They will be used as backup-to-disk destination devices on a single Windows NetWorker server. Which license (option) is needed? D.Virtual Tape Library A.ClientPak B.Disk Backup C.Storage Node Answer: B 18. Which process monitors active recover sessions? A.ansrd B.nsrd C.nsrdbd D.nsrexecd Answer: A 19. Which Celerra NS/CLARiiON tool is used to replicate both data and catalog to a remote site? A.SRDF B.MirrorView C.Celerra SnapSure D.Celerra Replicator Answer: B 20. In a Windows environment, the NetWorker nsrd process will not start because the resource database is corrupt. How can the resource information be recovered? A.Remove ...\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run mmrecov B.Remove ...\nsr\res, start nsrd, and run mmrecov C.Rename ...\nsr\index, start nsrd, and run recover D.Rename ...\nsr\mm, start nsrd, and run mmrecov Answer: B Exam : E20-097 Title : EMC Technology Foundations-Backup and Recovery 1.Which Avamar component(s) is/are checked as part of the de-duplication process? B.Client cache files only A.Client and server C.Client only D.Server only Answer: A 2.A user has to restore a corrupted file. Which type of recovery satisfies this request? A.Archival B.Disaster C.Operational D.Regulatory Answer: C 3.When restoring a server with EMC HomeBase, what must be done before the HomeBase base profile is applied? A.Apply the extended profile B.Install the backup application client C.Install the OS on the target server D.Restore the customer data Answer: C 4.What is a component of an Avamar Group policy? A.Backups B.Clients C.Datasets D.Users Answer: C 5.The EMC NetWorker client's retention policy was increased from three to four years, without changing the browse policy. What is the impact on newly created save sets? A.Increases the time available for save set recoveries B.Increases the time save sets are maintained in the client file index C.Reduces the time available for save set recoveries D.Reduces the time save sets are maintained in the client file index Answer: A 6.Which EMC NetWorker resource is used to specify the databases to be backed up? A.Client B.Directive C.Group D.Pool Answer: A 7.Which log file is used to perform full debugging of the EMC HomeBase server? A.console.log B.error.log C.package.log D.server.log Answer: D 8.Which EMC NetWorker module is designed specifically for backing up and recovering file systems containing many small files using NDMP? A.PowerSnap B.SnapImage C.SnapSure D.SnapView Answer: B 9.Which EMC NetWorker operation allows the user to duplicate save sets? A.Archiving B.Cloning C.Copying D.Staging Answer: D 10.What is an EMC NetWorker pool? A.Collection of labeled volumes B.Group of backup clients C.Multiple save sets D.Tape devices from multiple autochangers wer: B Ans 11.What is a benefit of using EMC NetWorker modules? A.Allows backup of a database in use B.Improves tape utilization ratio C.Organizes data on the backup media for fast recovery D.Performs cold database backups Answer: A 12.Which type of EMC NetWorker backup automatically results in the backup of the client file index? A.Client-initiated and server-initiated B.Client-initiated only C.Raw backups D.Server-initiated only Answer: D 13.Which EMC NetWorker option enables concurrent backup and recovery on the same device? A.Advanced file type device B.Automatic cloning C.Save set streaming D.SILO jukeboxes Answer: C 14.What is a benefit of using the EMC NetWorker SnapImage module? A.Allows block-level backups of file systems B.Allows the backup of raw devices C.Integrates with array remote replication technology D.Integrates with array snapshot technology Answer: A 15.For operational backup, what helps to determine the retention period? A.Backup type used B.Percentage of restore requests over time C.Recovery time objective D.Tape media type used Answer: B 16.Click the Exhibit button. Which EMC NetWorker module could be added to this backup environment to ensure integration and management of the CLARiiON snap technology? A.PowerSnap B.SnapImage C.SnapSure D.SnapView Answer: A 17.What is a function of EMC NetWorker? A.Enables failover to passive nodes B.Enables failover to remote servers C.Manages capacity of front end storage devices D.Protects critical business data Answer: C 18.How do EMC HomeBase recoveries differ from other bare metal recovery strategies? A.Independent of a specific backup manager B.Requires backup application data onsite before recovery can begin C.Target hardware must be identical to the source server D.Uses a different recovery tool for each platform type Answer: A 19.When backing up a file server, the data change rate is very high. Which backup level would you recommend for daily backups? A.Consolidated B.Differential C.Full D.Incremental Answer: C 20.What does an EMC HomeBase extended profile contain? A.All attributes of the operating system required to recover or migrate the environment B.Attributes and configuration from protected servers running on a platform different from the HomeBase server C.Attributes required to re-establish the application environment on the recovery server D.Replication attributes used when multiple protected sites are in place Answer: C Exam : E20-820 Title : CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects 1. Your customer has come to you with concerns. They have increased their replication bandwidth from OC-3 to OC-12 and wonder what will happen to their recovery point objectives. What would your response be? A. RPO will compensate and balance RTO B. RPO will decrease C. RPO will increase D. Time objective will remain consistent Answer: B 2. Which EMC products require a post-sales solution review by the EMC Solutions Validation Center (SVC)? A. EDL Replication, Open Replicator, and EmailXtender B. EDL Replication, SRDF/A, and RepliStor C. SRDF/A, Open Migrator, and MirrorView/A D. SRDF/A, RecoverPoint, and MirrorView/A Answer: D 3. Which tool will let you best determine disk utilization of a UNIX server? A. diskpar B. iostat C. navcli D. netstat Answer: B 4. Which tool will allow you to best determine a Windows server's performance? A. diskpart B. navseccli C. perfmon D. sar Answer: C 5. There are several decisions that need to be made when designing a Business Continuity Solution. What is one of the decision requirements for a good solution? A. All decisions should be calculated and derived from customer data B. Create specific device lists for modeling tools C. Industry standards and algorithms should be closely adhered to D. Provide customer with a standardized approach to Business Continuity Answer: A 6. What are the requirements that must be met when collecting data that will be used as input for the ET Tool in an environment that is evaluating for MirrorView/A? A. I/O to the LUNs should be stopped until the collecting of the data has started. B. The update cycle must be an integer multiple of the collection interval. C. The update cycle should be set for a 10-minute interval at maximum. D. The update cycle should be set for a five-minute interval at maximum. Answer: B 7. You are designing a CLARiiON disaster recovery environment for your customer. You want to accurately model and calculate the following based on the customer's input data and/or EMC Performance Data: Bandwidth requirements (physical links) Performance impacts at the logical volume level Recovery point objectives Which tool would best help you to accomplish this? A. ET Tool B. LOR Tool C. Navisphere Analyzer D. NSD Answer: A 8. The ET Tool validates which component of a Business Continuance design? A. Cache utilization B. Data change activity C. Link latency D. SP utilization Answer: B 9. The ET Wizard can be used to model which products? A. MirrorView, Open Replicator, Replication Manager B. MirrorView, RecoverPoint, SRDF C. MirrorView, RepliStor, SRDF D. SAN Copy, SRDF, MirrorView Answer: B 10. You have been asked to produce a local replication design for the company. What are the basic types of information you need to gather before beginning your task? A. Inventory of hardware infrastructure, service level agreements, number of users B. Operational flow and objectives of each department C. Performance and workloads, availability, consistency D. Process for bringing applications online, fault detection resources, network infrastructure Answer: C 11. A customer wishes to make a local copy of its 512 GB production LUN for a single test. The copy will be mounted to the production UNIX host. The customer requires a solution with minimal disruption to its application. What do you recommend? A. Create a snapshot of the production LUN, and start a session. Add the session to the production host's storage group. Change the volume label and mount. B. Clone the production LUN. Fracture the clone. Add the clone to the production host's storage group. Change the volume label and mount. C. Take the production LUN offline. Perform a full SAN Copy. Add the destination LUN to the production host's storage group, and restart the application. D.Use an Incremental SAN Copy session on the production LUN. Add the destination LUN to the production host's storage group. Mount the volume. Answer: B 12. Your customer is using SnapView to provide backup images (snaps and clones) of various host data across five CX3-40s. Recently they upgraded the CLARiiONs to FLARE release 26. Previously their scripts took care of the SnapView snap sessions and clone re-syncing, and ran without incident in the SnapView environment. Those same scripts now fail, with errors that the customer is saying are related to permissions. What is the cause of the failure? A. The agent.config file does not exist in the Navisphere Agent directory. B. The agent.config file does not exist in the Navisphere CLI directory. C. The Navisphere security file does not exist in the user home directory. D. The usernames and hostnames do not appear in the CLARiiON SP privileged user list. Answer: C 13. A customer with a CX3-20f has recently started using SnapView snapshots and immediately noticed an increase in write response times on the LUNs being snapped. What should be the long-term write response time impact of the active snapshot sessions? A. The impact will decrease over time. B. The impact will fluctuate, decrease then increase over time. C. The impact will increase over time. D. The impact will stay the same over time. Answer: A 14. A user fractures a clone and presents it to a secondary host. However, the data on the clone LUN does not contain the same data as the production host at the time of the fracture. What is the most likelycause? A. The application and file system buffers on the production host were not flushed prior to the fracture. B. The appropriate file system repair utilities on the production host were not performed prior to the fracture. C. The Consistent Fracture feature was not enabled on the source LUN. D. The file system on the production host must be unmounted prior to the fracture. Answer: A 15. The customer starts a SnapView session of a production database LUN and log LUN. The snapshot is immediately activated and presented to a secondary host for testing purposes. The production host experiences significantly higher write response times, but the response time does improve over time. What is the most likely cause? A. A high number of disk crossings occur if the RLP LUNs are less than 10% of the size of the source LUN. B. The COFW activity is generally highest at the start of a session. C. The random nature of a database causes the host write I/Os to be smaller at the start of a session. D. The write cache rehit ratio is always smaller at the start of a session. Answer: B 16. A customer's clone restore script has lines that perform the following operations: 1. Check that the clone is fractured 2. Flush the clone buffers 3. Flush the Source LUN buffers 4. Take the Source LUN offline 5. Start the reverse synchronization 6. Bring the Source LUN online What would you add to the script to ensure more reliable operation? A. A delay between steps 2 and 3 to allow the clone buffers to complete flushing B. A delay between steps 3 and 4 to allow the Source LUN buffers to complete flushing C. A delay between steps 4 and 5 to allow the Source LUN to transition to the offline state D. A delay between steps 5 and 6 to allow the reverse synchronization to start Answer: D 17. A customer keeps data on a 512 GB 4+4 RAID 1/0 LUN. The customer will use a SnapView snapshot for backup purposes, and keep the session active for the full 24-hour period between backups. You investigate its environment and determine the following: The application generates random 4 KB I/Os, with a read/write ratio of 3:1 The average seek distance is 35 GB The application generates a throughput of 200 IOPS for 10 hours per day and is idle for the remaining 14 hours You need to estimate the size of the Reserved LUN Pool and the write throughput of the Reserved LUN Pool. What is the best initial estimate? A. 120 GB, with fifty 64 KB writes/s and one hundred 8 KB writes/s B. 150 GB, with one hundred 128 KB writes/s C. 200 GB, with two hundred 4 KB writes/s and fifty 64 KB writes/s D. 512 GB, with two hundred fifty 4 KB writes/s Answer: A 18. A customer has a new cost saving policy in place and as a result will have data center personnel present from 8 A.M. to 5 P.M. Backups will be performed during these hours. Backups currently take six hours to complete. You explain the benefit of SnapView in backup environments. The customer wants a solution that will allow: Its backup to be run during work hours Minimal performance impact on its application Recovery from corruption of application data in a short time (preferably under one hour) You recommend the use of a clone, but the customer wants to use a snapshot. You explain the performance implications, but the customer wants to see numerical proof. The database LUN sees random 8 KB I/Os at a rate of 500 IOPS, with the read/write ratio at 4:1. What calculations on the following do you present as validation? Copy On First Write (COFW) Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) A. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 8 KB reads/s of the production LUN, and 200 64 KB writes/s and 100 8 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP. B. COFW during the day will cost 100 random 64 KB reads/s of the production LUN, and 100 64 KB writes/s and 200 8 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the Production LUN and RLP. C. COFW during the day will cost one random 8 KB read of the production LUN and two random 8 KB writes to the RLP for each 8 KB of data written to the database. Backup operations will cause additional sequential reads of the production LUN and RLP. D. COFW during the day will cost 100 sequential 64 KB writes/s of the production LUN and 200 64 KB writes/s to the RLP. Backup operations will cause additional random reads of the production LUN and RLP. Answer: B 19. A company wants to use SAN Copy over a 10 Mb/s IP connection over a Brocade 7500 FC/IP router. The SAN Copy I/O size will be 512 KB and the round-trip latency is 0.425 second. After completing the design, it is determined that they will have bandwidth problems. They cannot increase the bandwidth. What can be done to improve the data transfer between two sites? A. Change the SAN Copy buffer size to 2048 blocks B. Enable the Fast Write feature on the Brocade device C. Set the number of default sessions to 4 D. Set the Throttle value to 10 for all SAN Copy sessions Answer: B 20. A SAN Copy session (full) has been started to replicate a single 2 TB LUN in a customer environment: Source LUN is offline Source array and target array are connected to the same FC switch A single 400 MB/s SAN Copy connection has been established There is no contention on the link The SP utilization of the source and target arrays is less than 30% .After one hour, 1.3 TB has been replicated. What action might be taken to increase the replication rate? A. Decrease the data compression value on the FC switch B. Increase the SAN Copy throttle value C. Increase the write cache value on the target array D. No action necessary: replication rate is close to maximum Answer: D Exam : E20-815 Title : Symmetrix Business Continuity Expert Technology Architects 1. Click the Exhibit button. You are migrating a customer's Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs. According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select? A. 00D, 005, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055 C. 005, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D D. 015, 01D, 005, 02F, 055, and 05D Answer: B 2. Click the Exhibit button. You are migrating a customer's Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs. According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select? A. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055 B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 05D C. 005, 00D, 015, 02F, 055, and 05D D. 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D Answer: D 3. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. The customer is trying to estimate the user load profile that fits their environment for the purposes of sizing the disk subsystem. Which condition could cause the customer to underestimate the IOPS required for their environment? A. Database maintenance B. Deleted items retention C. Mobile device users D. Nested subfolders with many thousands of items Answer: C 4. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. They want to provision each mailbox server with 2,000 users, allowing for 100 "heavy" profile users per Exchange storage group. In designing an SLA for the customer, you determine that the customer requires the use of recovery storage groups for disaster recovery purposes. Which consideration must be made when architecting this solution? A. A maximum of 50 production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server B. A maximum of four production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server C. Exchange 2007 Enterprise Edition is required D. Server hosting the recovery storage group must be in a separate Active Directory forest from the source storage groups Answer: C 5. Click the Exhibit button. A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 "Average" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%. Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the Exchange database? B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 A. 2 Answer: A 6. Click the Exhibit button. A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 "Average" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%. Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the performance profile of the Exchange transaction logs? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: A 7. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 "Very Heavy" profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance completes nightly. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance. What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group's database, while meeting the customer's needs? A. 25 GB B. 113 GB C. 119 GB D. 133 GB Answer: C 8. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 "Heavy" profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance takes 48 hours to complete. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance. What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group's database, while meeting the customer's needs? B. 95 GB C. 100 GB D. 125 GB A. 25 GB Answer: C 9. A customer has noticed that performance is degraded on one of their Microsoft Exchange servers after migrating all Exchange 2003 servers to Exchange 2007. Analysis indicated that the system is performing two reads for every transaction. What is the most probable cause? A. Block size is too small B. Cache is disabled C. Sector misalignment D. Stripe size is too small Answer: C 10. Click the Exhibit button. A customer is planning to consolidate 4,000 "Very Heavy" profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%. Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 5 protected spindles needed to support the performance profile of the Exchange transaction logs? A. 8 B. 12 C. 16 D. 20 Answer: B 11. A customer is implementing Replication Manager 5.1.3 to create BCV replicas against a Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. The Exchange server has two sets of STD devices: one set running the production LUNs and the other acting as a local continuous replication destination. The customer would like an application consistent BCV replica of the production LUN with minimal impact on the production LUN. How should the Replication Manager job be configured? A. A file system job should be configured against the local continuous replication target LUN(s) B. A file system job should be configured against the production Exchange LUN(s) C. An Exchange job should be configured against the local continuous replication target LUN(s) D. An Exchange job should be configured against the production Exchange LUN(s) Answer: D 12. A customer wants to use Replication Manager to create application consistent BCV copies of their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server running Cluster Continuous Replication (CCR). They would like to create the replica from the passive copy of the CCR storage group, regardless of which physical node in the cluster currently hosts that role. What is your recommendation? A. Replication Manager can replicate only the active copy of a CCR cluster B. Use combination replication to replicate the CCR storage group C. Use node-based replication of the CCR storage group D. Use role-based replication of the CCR storage group Answer: D 13. Click the Exhibit button The exhibit represents a solution you have architected for a customer. You then configured Replication Manager to create automated BCV copies of the database. After configuring the application set and job, the job simulation is failing. What is the most likely cause for the failure? A. Database and Transaction Logs must reside on the same mount point B. System Path and Transaction Logs must reside on the same mount point C. Too few spindles are allocated to the System Path D. Too few spindles are allocated to the Transaction Logs Answer: B 14. You are designing a Replication Manager solution to provide VSS backups of Exchange 2007 with TimeFinder/Clone. What should you take into consideration? A. A maximum of five databases per storage group is supported B. Circular logging must be disabled C. Transaction Log and database paths must be the same D. Transaction Log and system path cannot be on the same device Answer: B 15. A customer has asked you to design a TimeFinder/EIM architecture. You have been given the following information: 1 Two sites are approximately 300 kilometers apart 2 Round trip latency between sites is 50 ms 3 Current network utilization is 80% The customer is concerned about recoverability and local application performance. Other applications reside on the source DMX hosting Microsoft Exchange and it is currently nearing capacity. The customer has cost concerns and is looking for you to design the best solution with their existing resources. Which solution meets the customer's requirements for performance, recoverability, and cost? A. SRDF/A using a production R1, R2, and RBCV as well as R1 BCV, R2, and a BRBCV copy B. SRDF/A using standard R1, remote R2, and RBCV C. SRDF/S using a standard volume, a local R1 BCV, R2, and BRBCV D. SRDF/S using standard R1, remote R2, and RBCV Answer: B 16. A customer noticed that their RDF links between Site A and Site B are suspended. You have been contacted by the customer to resolve database corruption and inconsistencies. Their SRDF setup includes standard, R1BCV, R2, and RBCV volumes. You verify, in the application event logs, that TimeFinder/EIM was synchronizing before the link suspension. How do you provide the customer with consistent data? A. Restore from tape to the RBCV to the R2 B. Restore from the RBCV to the R2 C. Restore the STD device from either the R2 or the RBCV D. Restore the STD device from R1BCV Answer: B 17. A customer is configuring SRDF/S. Their current configuration does not provide local recoverability. The local DMX is nearing capacity. They have a requirement for a solution that will simplify the restore process. In addition, the customer wants you to take their tape backup solution into consideration. How should you address the customer's requirement? A. Create a solution that will utilize the STD, R1BCV to R2, BRBCV layout. Recover from BRBCV. B. Create a solution that will utilize the R1 to R2/R1BCV to R2, and BRBCV layout. Recover from R2. C. Create a solution that will utilize the R1, R2 to RBCV layout. Recover from R2. D. Create a solution that will utilize the R1, R2 to RBCV layout. Recover from RBCV. Answer: D 18. A customer has a requirement to simplify management of their Microsoft Exchange database replication. You have been assigned the task of meeting this requirement. In creating application sets and jobs, which configuration considerations should you be aware of for Replication Manager? A. Storage groups for Exchange data and logs can be on the same volumes but have to reside on different hypervolumes B. Storage groups for Exchange data and logs cannot be on the same volumes but have to reside on different hypervolumes C. System path and transaction log path must always exist in different locations due to the checkpoint file D. System path and transaction log path must always exist in the same location due to the checkpoint file Answer: D 19. When performing an incremental synchronization of an Oracle database environment, what are the key objects that need to be replicated to ensure a restartable instance on the target host? A. Archive Log Files and Data Files B. Control File and Oracle System Files C. Control File and Redo Logs D. Data Files and Control File Answer: C 20. A customer wants to implement a consolidated solution for an Oracle 11g database environment. During your discussions, which issues need to be highlighted and reviewed before moving forward with any recommendations? A. 1. ASM device groups properly sized 2. Disk groups appropriately set up 3. Volume groups appropriately sized B. 1. Device groups appropriately set up 2. Oracle files laid out efficiently on the array 3. Volume groups appropriately sized C. 1. OFA compliance 2. Device groups appropriately set up 3. File systems properly sized D. 1. OFA compliance 2. Oracle files laid out efficiently on the array 3. Volume groups appropriately sized Answer: D